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For someone who married without a halachic pre-nuptual agreement, are there any halachic authorities who recommend giving a conditional get (bill of divorce) which stipulates that it would go into effect if/when one of the parties wishes to end the marriage?

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Why would one do this? Why would having given a halachic pre-nuptual agreement (what did the agreement say?) have anything to do with this? –  Double AA Apr 1 '14 at 17:29
"For someone who married without a halachic pre-nuptual agreement": do you mean a k'suba? (I'm guessing not, but then it'd be good if you clarify what you do mean.) –  msh210 Apr 1 '14 at 19:37
In the time of King David, men would give a Get before going to battle in case they never return. –  sharshi Apr 2 '14 at 0:34
@BackseatChazan but they didn't have an issue of a biya being koneh –  Shmuel Brin Apr 2 '14 at 1:11
@DoubleAA to avoid aguna issues, I suppose. If he made a prenup, he can force a get when he needs it. –  Shmuel Brin Apr 2 '14 at 1:43

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