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Recently, I made some vodka at home and my friend (modern orthodox) asked that it be toiveled so that he may drink the beverage. However, I know that extremely religious Jews will drink whiskey or bottled water which is made on equipment which is known to be 100% not toiveled.

My question is, why must I toivel by still when Glenfidich does not?

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"that it be toiveled so that he may drink the beverage": CYLOR, but I think this is an error. Must it be immersed? I don't see why not. Does that affect the kashruth of the drink? AFAIK no: it's perfectly potable even if the equipment wasn't immersed. Like I said, though, don't trust me on that. –  msh210 Mar 23 at 20:57

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up vote 7 down vote accepted

Only vessels owned by Jews have to be toiveled.

Since the Glenfidich owners are probably non-Jews they don't have to toivel their machinery - and even if they did it would be meaningless.

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