Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

Recently, I made some vodka at home and my friend (modern orthodox) asked that it be toiveled so that he may drink the beverage. However, I know that extremely religious Jews will drink whiskey or bottled water which is made on equipment which is known to be 100% not toiveled.

My question is, why must I toivel by still when Glenfidich does not?

share|improve this question
"that it be toiveled so that he may drink the beverage": CYLOR, but I think this is an error. Must it be immersed? I don't see why not. Does that affect the kashruth of the drink? AFAIK no: it's perfectly potable even if the equipment wasn't immersed. Like I said, though, don't trust me on that. – msh210 Mar 23 '14 at 20:57
up vote 8 down vote accepted

Only vessels owned by Jews have to be toiveled.

Since the Glenfidich owners are probably non-Jews they don't have to toivel their machinery - and even if they did it would be meaningless.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.