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Assuming bread was prepared and baked by a Gentile using only kosher ingredients (e.g. kosher flour, water and kosher yeast) and only kosher equipment, what conditions would render such bread fit for consumption by a kosher-observant Jew Lekhatehhilah? Bedi'avad?

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There's an entire chapter of Shulchan Aruch (Yore Dea 112) — sixteen subsections plus all the commentaries and later works — devoted to this, so obviously answers here, including this one, can't do the topic justice. But the Star-K and the OU summarize the main points, qq.v., and I'll briefly summarize the summaries:

  1. It's forbidden unless a Jew was involved in the baking.
  2. An exception is made for commercially baked goods, though for S'faradim only in case of need. (Many, even Ashk'nazim, don't rely on the exception at all, or at least not between Rosh Hashana and Yom Kipur inclusive.)
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Thanks @msh210 for the references and your summary! –  Lee Mar 6 at 5:13
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I would like to add, although it doesn't fit the example in the question, that sometimes bread is made not kosher. Before I was frum, I worked in a bakery at Busch Gardens and they used lard (animal fat, I think pig) to grease the pans... –  Ploni Almoni Mar 6 at 6:28

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