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Why are identical words pronounced differently at certain locations of the Shema? Or is this only for Sefardim? The two identical phrases in question are in the Veahávta and then again in the Vehayá:

  1. "beshivtéja beveitéja uvlejtéja vadérej, uvshojbéja uvkuméja." (Please note the change of accent mark between both readings)
  2. "beshivtejá beveitéja, uvlejtejá vadérej uvshojbejá uvkuméja. (The J should be read as CH for Ashkenazim)

Keep in mind that I'm not referring to differences between Sefardim vs Ashkenazim pronunciation, but within the Shema itself. I will assume that this pronunciation may apply to Ashkenazim as well and that the issue may be one of Hebrew grammar. But what exactly is that rule (if it is one of grammar)?

The example above was taken from the Sidur Tefilát Binyamin by Benjamin Senker

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This seems to be a mispronunciation. The correct way for both paragraphs is the way you list second. That said, I don't know why it's mispronounced, which is what you ask, so I'm not posting this as an answer. Welcome to Mi Yodeya! I hope you stick around and enjoy the site. I recommend a brief intro to the site; you may also wish to change your username (unless you're fond of the number 4937). – msh210 Feb 13 '14 at 2:32
Can you clarify where you have seen/heard the first method of pronunciation (which AFAICT is inaccurate)? – Double AA Feb 13 '14 at 3:17
The example above was taken from the Sidur Tefilát Binyamin by Benjamin Senker. This sidur is in Hebrew and Spanish using the Ashkenazí custom. – Nun50 Feb 13 '14 at 17:29
Based on all of my Tanakh's and my extensive Siddur collection of various nushaot, there is no question that msh210 is absolutely correct. – Yahu Feb 19 '14 at 6:44

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