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If a non-Jew does an act which would be considered a kiddush Hashem or chillul Hashem if done by a Jew, does it have the same status?

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You're asking about the definitions of kidush hashem and chilul hashem (specifically, whether those definitions include the possibility of a gentile's causing then)? In my (limited) experience, Judaism doesn't go into a question of semantics like that unless there's some practical outcome of the question. Or, in yeshivish, may nafka minah? –  msh210 Jan 30 at 16:41

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Kiddush/chillul Hashem taken to mean showing the world that this is how Hashem's chosen people behaves:

No, by definition: The gentile cannot be representative of a group he does not belong to.

Kiddush/chillul Hashem taken to mean letting one self be killed rather than doing something for which one is required to let oneself be killed rather than doing:

Yes, by definition (at least theoretically): If that is the label of an act, and he did that act, then it has that label.* (However, as per Sanhedrin 74b, there may not be any actions requiring a gentile to sacrifice his life, rendering occurrence impossible.)


* My head spins from reading my own words!

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Do non-Jews have a commandment to die rather than transgress? To be killed for a transgression that you aren't meant to be killed for is subject to machlokes rishonim if it's even allowed - I assume that wouldn't be a kiddush Hashem if they don't have such an injunction. –  YEZ Jan 30 at 20:15
    
@YEZ AFAIK, yes, the "three big ones" are yehareg v'al ya'avor even for goyim. –  NBZ Jan 30 at 20:19
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@YEZ Sanhedrin 74b NBZ It seems they are not obligated, so your second point is tenuous at best. –  Double AA Jan 30 at 20:21
    
Why does one have to belong to a group to show the world that's how they behave? What if the non-Jew publicizes a story about a Jew doing a positive thing? –  Double AA Jan 30 at 20:21
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@NBZ hebrewbooks.org/… from the ein mishpat to sanhedrin 74, and probably also hebrewbooks.org/… –  Double AA Jan 30 at 21:24

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