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Consider a case of a Jewish-born child who was circumcised by a non-orthodox or non-Jewish person (say with a circumcision clamp by a doctor - where the doctor was just thinking about a surgical procedure, but the parents did it for Jewish reasons and not because it prevents disease or another secular consideration). It was done on or after 8 days old.

Is Hatafas Dam Bris (a pinprick of blood) required subsequently? Or does it not really matter - after the fact - who did it, just that it was done on or after the right time?

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Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/30079/3 – WAF Jan 22 '14 at 14:40
up vote 7 down vote accepted

Maimonides says no, though it is preferable that the mohel be a Jewish adult male. A Gentile should not preform the circumcision, but if he does, it need not be repeated (I assume by way of drawing blood). Shulkhan Arukh agrees.

So for Sephardic Jews, there is no problem as long as the mohel is Jewish, and it is preferred that he not be a Gentile.

However the Remah argues, saying that if non Jew, or even a Jew that has forsaken the Torah entire or even just the commandment of circumcision, performs the circumcision, a drawing of blood must be done.

So for Ashkenazic Jews, the Mohel must be an Orthodox Jew.

One wishing to satisfy all opinions would have to use an Orthodox mohel.

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