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If Mr. X married Ms. Y and they got divorced and have a Get, and Mr. X continued to marry Ms. Z and is now asking her for a Get in order to re marry Ms. Y. Is that permitted?

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I am not so sure what the exact question is(having two wives or because of the Shulchan Aruch halacha?).The Shulchan Aruch Even Haezer Hilchos Ishos 10:1 writes that if a women marries in between she cannot remarry but I believe there is no such issur for a man because a man can technically marry more than one woman(except nowadays per Rabbeinu Gershom) –  sam Jan 15 at 2:49
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Hello Jennifer and welcome to mi.yodeya! As the commenters suggested, there may be higher quality answers to your question if you include some more circumstantial information about either the case or what you're looking for. –  WAF Jan 15 at 2:56
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The only restrictions here would be if Ms. Y married someone else in the interim after Mr. X divorced her, like Mr. A, and got divorced from him. Also if Mr. X was a Cohen, he can't marry a divorced woman, even his own divorcee. Lastly if Ms. Y and Ms. Z are closely related, like sisters or mother and daughter, etc I think there might be an issue. Otherwise, remarrying a woman that a person divorced is a mitzvah! –  Baby Seal Jan 15 at 4:21
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@BabySeal, I suggest that you find a source or two for your assertions and post an answer. I think the question, as posted, is just as specific as it needs to be, as demonstrated in part by your ability to answer it concisely. There's no need for Jennifer to specify "Shulchan Aruch Halacha" vs. Halacha-as-observed (or whatever) or whether X is a Cohen, Y has a prenup, Z keeps Shabbat, or anything else that may or may not be relevant. If there a relevant variables, they should be expained in answers. –  Isaac Moses Jan 15 at 21:59
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Jennifer, if you're seeking guidance for a practical matter, I recommend that you consult your Rabbi. meta.judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/1734/… –  Isaac Moses Jan 15 at 22:03
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1 Answer 1

In terms of Mr. X remarrying Ms. Y., that is permitted provided that Ms. Y did not marry somebody else in the interim. However, your wording of "is now asking her for a Get in order to remarry Ms. Y" is not so clear. First of all, he would be giving her a get, not asking her for one (perhaps you mean that he is asking her to accept a get). Secondly, I would recommend that Mr. X work on having his current marriage be a successful one, without planning what to do after it may dissolve.

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A wife can ask, just not force. –  Shmuel Brin Jan 16 at 17:43
    
A husband isn't allowed to force either... –  Double AA Apr 1 at 21:37
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