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I see in the Sidur HaRasa"g that he makes a seemingly strange comment about the b'rakha(oth) of t'philin. He states:

התפילין כשמהדקים של היד על היד ושל ראש על הראש צריך לברך אקבמ"ו להניח תפילין

ha-t'philin k'sh'm'hadhqim shel yadh al ha-yadh w'shel rosh al ha-rosh ssarikh l'varekh "asher qidshanu b'misswothaw w'ssiwanu l'haniah t'philin"

Translation: "T'philin: When we fasten the Shel Yadh to the arm and the Shel Rosh to the head it is necessary to make the b'rakha 'Who sanctified us with His commandments and commanded us to set t'philin [in place].' "

The note at the bottom of the page in the sidur says that he essentially holds like Rav Amram Gaon (i.e. the standard shitta of the Sepharadim) that a b'rakha is made on the shel yadh only, but it seems to me that a simple diyuq in his wording yields the possibility that he held like the shitta of making two b'rakhoth on t'philin, but the same b'rakha each time (i.e. l'haniah t'philin).

My question is: How does the Rasa"g truly hold in this reagrd? Do we know from anywhere else in Geonic literature? Is the language in his sidur clear on this fact?

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The second part of your question is clearly answered in the background information: he is ambiguous. :) – Yitzchak Dec 11 '13 at 14:57
I understand about the ambiguity, but I was more questioning my own analysis. As in, "Perhaps I am reading it incorrectly?" Kol tuv. – Maimonist Dec 11 '13 at 20:41

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