Being a Muslim and a student of comparative religion, I am interested to know what is the Jewish notion of prophethood particularly pertaining to gentiles. I have come to know that Job and Bilaam were among the gentiles but are still recognized as prophets.
What really made the Jews of Arabia reject Muhammad's prophethood as he was also among the gentiles just like Job and Bilaam?
May peace and blessings be upon all the prophets of God (amen).
As Torah testifies that: "I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him." (Deuteronomy 18:18), therefore a prophet can also be raised among other nations associated fraternally("among their brothers") to the Children of Israel.
So why not him? None of his teachings are contrary to the teachings of Abraham, Moses and the prophets came after them (may peace and blessings be upon all of them)?
Looking forward to authentic, logical and unbiased replies. Thanks