Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

When a Non Jew does something it would work according to Halacha, however when a Jew does the same thing it is useless.

share|improve this question

closed as not constructive by Isaac Moses Jun 17 '11 at 21:44

As it currently stands, this question is not a good fit for our Q&A format. We expect answers to be supported by facts, references, or expertise, but this question will likely solicit debate, arguments, polling, or extended discussion. If you feel that this question can be improved and possibly reopened, visit the help center for guidance.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

up vote 17 down vote accepted

Negating an avoda zara. If a non-Jew takes an idol and says "I reject this!" and damages it, the idol is no longer prohibited from benefit. A Jew can't do that.

share|improve this answer

If an animal was mostly slaughtered by a Jew (the majority but not all of the trachea & esophagus were cut) and the animal is not dying, a non-Jew can kill it however he wants and the animal will be kosher. If a Jew shechted the rest of the way, it would be a shihiyah b'miut batra (a pause in the final portion) and the animal is neveila (not kosher). But since the slaughter of a non-Jew is nothing, the majority slaughtered by the Jew is all that counts.

(See Shulchan Aruch YD 23:5)

share|improve this answer
Welcome to Judaism.SE, and thanks very much for that fascinating bit of Halacha! – Isaac Moses May 12 '11 at 17:09

If a non-Jew does m'lacha for himself on Shabas, a Jew can use the result immediately; not so if a Jew does. (As always, CYLOR.)

share|improve this answer

A non-jew can taste a mixture of food to tell if the prohibited substance (e.g. milk in meat) inside gave taste.

share|improve this answer
If a Jew did so for some reason (e.g. he had a blood-sugar emergency), we would trust him, just as an Ashkenazi can trust a Sefardi who trusts a non-Jew, or we can taste a fleishig-sliced onion for meatiness. – Shalom Oct 5 '10 at 23:03
Avoda Zara the non jew changes the status - by tasting food the jew still is the one who determines whether the food is Kosher. – Gershon Gold Oct 6 '10 at 2:30

A non-Jew can run a kosher establishment without the certifiers worrying (as much) about him owning chametz over pesach, toveling all the kelim, etc..

share|improve this answer

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.