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If a Jewish woman is married to a Jewish man, and she has been sentenced to death or declared a resident of a Rebellious City, but not yet been executed, is she considered technically "dead" to the extent that her marriage is terminated, and she is permitted to marry another man?

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Tora Tora Tora, welcome to Mi Yodeya, and thanks for bringing your question here! You could make this question much more valuable and answerable by editing in why you suspect this may be an issue and/or why the answer to this question is significant. Also, please consider registering your account, which will give you access to more of the site's features. –  Isaac Moses Nov 5 '13 at 22:16
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Do we, in general, extend the rule “it must be destroyed, so it has the status as if it already is” to people? This question is more likely to have been discussed in the context of whether a condemned man can effect kiddushin. –  J. C. Salomon Nov 5 '13 at 23:12
    
… and the possibility of judicial reprieve is going to be a factor. –  J. C. Salomon Nov 5 '13 at 23:13
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Together with the presence of the aguna tag, which I didn't understand until now, I get the sense that you're trying to invent a scheme for freeing agunot, perhaps by convening a court to, pro forma, order their executions. I once had a similar (even less practical) notion regarding open-heart surgery. Anyway, I recommend that you either make your whole question explicit up-front or narrow the question back down to the atomic "can one marry her" question, tag accordingly, and ask additional questions separately. –  Isaac Moses Nov 5 '13 at 23:16
    
The g'mara lists two ways to end a marriage, and death of the wife isn't one of them. (Nor is death of the wife the other of them.) –  msh210 Nov 6 '13 at 18:45

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