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The pasuk states (Vayikra 23:43): לְמַעַן, יֵדְעוּ דֹרֹתֵיכֶם, כִּי בַסֻּכּוֹת הוֹשַׁבְתִּי אֶת-בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל, בְּהוֹצִיאִי אוֹתָם מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרָיִם

Various commentaries point out that in order to fulfil the mitzvah of sukkah one needs to contemplate the meaning of sukkah (טור או''ח ס' תרכה); either to have כוונה like Rabbi Eliezer (ענני הכבוד) or Rabbi Akiva (סוכה ממש) or ideally both (Chayei Adam klal 146).

So important is its meaning that there are those who would require you to eat another kezayit if you hadn't had the correct כוונה, albeit a chumrah (ברכי יוסף ס' תרכה אות ג). MB goes like the Pre Megadim who says that we only need to have כוונה to fulfil the mitzvah, not specifically for the meaning of the word sukkot in the pasuk.

Why is the mitzvah of sukkah unique in that it has a meaning ('לְמַעַן יֵדְעוּ') that is meakev? And how does this fit into the general discussion of מצות צריכות כוונה?

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See tzitzit and teffilin also –  user3114 Sep 22 '13 at 0:21
    
See the Bach on this –  sam Sep 22 '13 at 18:39
    
@sam please elaborate. i briefly saw the Bach and he doesn't go further. i could be wrong. –  bondonk Sep 22 '13 at 19:02

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