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The Shulchan Arukh (OC 663:3) says that on Shabbat of Chol haMoed Sukkot (as with the Shabbat of Chol haMoed Pesach) we read from Exodus 33-34. This is learnt out from a baraita in Megillah 31a, although no reason is given. The Chofetz Chayim (Mishna Berurah, 663:8) says that it is because there is a reference to the sukkah within this passage ("שיש בה ענין סכה").

Where is the reference to the sukkah in Exodus 33:12-34:26?

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What about the end of 34:22? –  Double AA Sep 22 '13 at 3:48
    
@DoubleAA - as per my comment beneath Pakuda's answer, my assumption was that the Mishna Berurah could have said "סכת", but chose for whatever reason to say "סכה" instead. But you may be right and he may have been referring to the festival... –  Shimon bM Sep 22 '13 at 7:55

2 Answers 2

I assumed it was a matter of a reference to the holiday of Sukkos, not to a Sukkah.

Exodus 34:22:

וְחַג שָׁבֻעֹת תַּעֲשֶׂה לְךָ, בִּכּוּרֵי קְצִיר חִטִּים; וְחַג, הָאָסִיף--תְּקוּפַת, הַשָּׁנָה

And thou shalt observe the feast of weeks, even of the first-fruits of wheat harvest, and the feast of ingathering at the turn of the year.

The "feast of ingathering" (hag ha-asif) is Sukkos.

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Thanks, Paquda... You might be right. My assumption was that while he could have said "שיש בה ענין סכת", he said סכה for a reason. But pending any indications to the contrary, I may have to assume as you did. –  Shimon bM Sep 22 '13 at 7:53
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Maybe it would be helpful to check the parallel halakhah for pesah--regarding the reading for hol ha-moed--and see how it's worded. Also, you could check Torah Shleimah on the pasuk that has the word 've-sakkoti' and see if a connection to sukkot was ever made by any midrash. –  paquda Sep 24 '13 at 2:57

I don't know for certain, but having now heard that portion leyned in full, I wonder if the Mishna Berurah is referring to Exodus 33:22, in which the verb used to describe God's hand covering Moses' face (ושכותי) is etymologically related to the word used to describe the covering of the sukkah (שכך).

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