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Is the prayer we recite Yom Kippur pronounced Kal Nidre or Kol Nidre?

I've in the name of one of the Posekei Hador, Harav Bension Musafi that it doesn't make sense to call it Kol Nidre as it is in Aramaic but most of the Siddurim write Kol. What's do the sources have to say.

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Harav Musafi says that there's no qamatz qatan in Aramaic?? That's clearly false; not only that, but the full spelling of כל is with a waw: כול. There is a Canaanite shift, whereby a long a-vowel becomes an o-vowel (eg: Aramaic כתב = Hebrew כותב), but that doesn't mean that you can work backwards, turning all Hebrew o-vowels into long a-vowels for Aramaic. –  Shimon bM Aug 27 '13 at 4:35
    
@ShimonbM I've heard it in his name but not from him directly. –  Hacham Gabriel Aug 27 '13 at 4:40
    
How do you pronounce the a and o in those words? Either please include a recording, or write the names of the vowels you are trying to denote. –  Double AA Aug 27 '13 at 4:46
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For Ashkenazim, and most others, it should be pronounced like "call", with a non-NY accent. For Syrians, it should be like the first syllable in "California". –  Seth J Aug 28 '13 at 12:02
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That is to say, you have the right idea, which is that Aramaic doesn't have a Kametz Katon. –  Seth J Aug 28 '13 at 12:04

2 Answers 2

Here is an image from the Machzor of Worms (from the 13th century) with Kal rather than Kol: enter image description here

However, please consider that it is written in a hodgepodge of Hebrew and Aramaic. Do you think that the word מיום כיפורים זה and הבא עלינו לטובה or שבועות are Aramaic?

Ultimately, as long as we have the correct intent and are saying what has been established as a nusach, I cannot really see myself bothered one way or the other.

An additional point. In Daniel, which contains Biblical Aramaic, we see kol. Thus, in Daniel 4:3: וּמִנִּי, שִׂים טְעֵם, לְהַנְעָלָה קָדָמַי, לְכֹל חַכִּימֵי בָבֶל: דִּי-פְשַׁר חֶלְמָא, יְהוֹדְעֻנַּנִי.

However, two pesukim later, with a makef introduced, we have kal: בֵּלְטְשַׁאצַּר, רַב חַרְטֻמַּיָּא--דִּי אֲנָה יִדְעֵת דִּי רוּחַ אֱלָהִין קַדִּישִׁין בָּךְ, וְכָל-רָז לָא-אָנֵס לָךְ; חֶזְוֵי חֶלְמִי דִי-חֲזֵית וּפִשְׁרֵהּ, אֱמַר.

If we trust the Masoretes for their vocalization of Aramaic, then this would should that there is indeed Kol in Aramaic. Which in turn would undermine the entire premise of the question.

By the way, at least in Hebrew, the kamatz of kal is a kamatz katan, pronounced almost like or identical to a cholam. In which case, there would not really be much a difference. Would this extend to Aramaic? Maybe not.

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Re your last paragraph, see Hacham Gabriel's comment on his own question, where he quotes a "תשובה". (Note there's no makaf in "כל עצמותי תאמרנה".) –  msh210 Aug 28 '13 at 4:39
    
There are precisely two כלs in Tanach where the kamatz is rachav: כל עצמותי and וכל בשליש. –  Double AA Aug 28 '13 at 6:08
    
Another point, Daniel 4:3 has ג וּמִנִּי, שִׂים טְעֵם, לְהַנְעָלָה קָדָמַי, לְכֹל חַכִּימֵי בָבֶל: דִּי-פְשַׁר חֶלְמָא, יְהוֹדְעֻנַּנִי. 3 Therefore made I a decree to bring in all the wise men of Babylon before me, that they might make known unto me the interpretation of the dream. –  josh waxman Aug 28 '13 at 6:23
    
While 4:6 has a makef and ו בֵּלְטְשַׁאצַּר, רַב חַרְטֻמַּיָּא--דִּי אֲנָה יִדְעֵת דִּי רוּחַ אֱלָהִין קַדִּישִׁין בָּךְ, וְכָל-רָז לָא-אָנֵס לָךְ; חֶזְוֵי חֶלְמִי דִי-חֲזֵית וּפִשְׁרֵהּ, אֱמַר. 6 O Belteshazzar, master of the magicians, because I know that the spirit of the holy gods is in thee, and no secret causeth thee trouble, tell me the visions of my dream that I have seen, and the interpretation thereof. –  josh waxman Aug 28 '13 at 6:26

There are a few Sephardic communities which have a tradition to pronounce every qames in Aramaic as qames gadhol: e.g., kal nidre. (Even fewer retain this only in certain common phrases, like kal nidre, but there is probably no basis for this.) This may have developed as an over-correction: people had to be careful to say "ʿalam" and not "ʿolam" so they also said kal and not kol. In all other communities Aramaic has the same rules for qames-qatan as Hebrew does. Beware! that many siddurim spell kol and similar words with a qames but neglect to include the maqqeph. This causes people to err because they think the word has independent stress and therefore the qames must be gadhol. In such places, one should use kol with qames qatan despite the lack of maqqeph. In Ps. 35:10, most traditions consider the qames to be qames gadhol because the word has an accent. In Isaiah 40:12 wekhal with qames gadhol is a verb, and does not mean "all".

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