In parsha ki tetze (Devarim 22) it says if a man takes a wife, hates her, accuses her of not being a virgin, etc. Then the elders spread out the bedsheet to see if there is blood of virginity. If not, then the man is fined. If yes, then the girl is excecuted publicly.
Rashi brings down the oral which explains that it refers to the case where there were witnesses that she committed adultery. The plain reading of the verses however offers no such clue. It appears that only if the bedsheet did not have blood, then the girl is stoned to death by all the inhabitants of the city.
Anyone unfamiliar with the oral law will read this and consider the torah to be barbaric and bizzare. Question is why did God write the torah in such a way that it appears so misleading without the oral law.
There are many many other examples, take for example in parsha vayera (Bereishis 21:6-7) "Upon seeing the son of Hagar engaged in 'laughter' Sarah demands that Hagar and her "son" be sent away" (21:10). Without the oral law which explains "laughter" to be attempted murder it seems really, really bizzare. What just because the kid laughed, you want to send away him and his mother???
Is the torah trying to repel those without access to the oral law??