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Suppose one does an act on shabbas about which there is a machlokes whether it is forbidden d'oraysia or not (perhaps even a posek holds it is permitted). This person does the act regardless, but then he decides to ask his Rav because he knows it is a machlokes and the Rav declares the act an issur d'oraysia. Is this person liable to bring a chatas (sacrificial offering brought on a d'oraysia violation of shabbas)?

Since he now holds it is prohibited, do we say that, every time he did the act before the prohibiting ruling, he did something wrong? Or do we say that, since there are opinions who hold it is not a d'oraysia or even that its permitted, he would be exempt from a chatas up until he asked his Rav?

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Who says that it's mutar to do a malacha on Shabbos? – Daniel Aug 9 '13 at 16:55
no one I meant melacha as something which is debatable not like planting(av melacha) ,or sowing something like electricity which was debated. – sam Aug 9 '13 at 16:58
Ah ok. I misunderstood the statement. – Daniel Aug 9 '13 at 17:00
Yes. See beginning of Horyos. Or Shabbos ch. 7. about a Tinok Shenishba – Shmuel Brin Aug 9 '13 at 17:01
This won't answer your question but it's very close ateret4u.com/online/f_01355_part_22.html#HtmpReportNum0093_L2 see 318:1:3,4. – Hacham Gabriel Aug 14 '13 at 4:26

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