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The Rambam in beginning of Hilchos Deos asserts that God has no body - physical or otherwise.

Hence, God is totally intangible. If so, how can the untangible affect anything in this world?

If He has no corporeality at all, then how does He effect a physical event? In our understanding, every time light comes in to being or clouds move, some physical source must cause it, but God isn't physical. Is saying "Let there be light" a physical act? If so, that contradicts the Rambam; if not, how does it effect the creation of light?

I'm not asking that physical effects imply a physical being. I'm asking how, assuming He has no physical being, He effects things. Not that He can't: yes, that'd limit Him. But how does He? Familiar physical events require a physical thing to effect them: by what medium does a non-physical God effect physical things?

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how can an intangible do things? he has no arm, no leggs, no brain, yet he can exhibit strength, think, etc. How can a nontangible have any tools to do anything –  ray Aug 6 '13 at 20:33
I think this question has an incorrect premise. –  Hacham Gabriel Aug 6 '13 at 20:35
This is actually a classic criticism of Plato's Theory of Forms - Critics as old as Aristotle (Plato's student) brought this up. –  Charles Koppelman Aug 7 '13 at 0:50
@HachamGabriel please share what is the incorrect premise? –  ray Aug 7 '13 at 21:27
@ ray, What @Hacham seems to be saying is that we have no other reference of intangibility to compare it to. So who says that the intangible can't affect the tangible? Here's what we know: 1) G-d is the only truly intangible thing. 2) He, in practice, can affect the tangible. Therefore 3) Intangible things can affect tangible ones. The "what medium" question is more valid, but it strikes me as nigh unanswerable, much as other questions about G-d's nature. How does G-d create? How does G-d exist? –  HodofHod Aug 9 '13 at 18:07

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There are some ideas in Kabbalah that can answer your question. Generally, G-d expresses His immaterial nature through a series of filters (the spheres on the Tree of Life diagram) which allows His influence to work through physical objects.

To be more specific, G-d's nature as Ein Sof is such that it is too pure to be directly expressed in physical form, and He chose to use a series of vessels (the sephirot) to filter Himself so that Creation could occur. It was through G-d's action and using G-d's filtered emanations as building material that the physical world was Created, and through His continued action that it continues to exist.

So the question, "If He has no corporeality at all, then how does He effect a physical event" is flawed, to some degree. Corporeality exists and is sustained by Him; G-d can act in the physical world because it comes from Him.

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I don't understand how this answers the question. What is the flaw exactly in your last paragraph? The whole point of the question is how God sustains corporeality. You can't use that as a premise in your answer. This is circular. –  Double AA Aug 11 '13 at 9:00
@DoubleAA In the question, corporeality is presupposed to be different than the intangibility of G-d. This interpretation denies that distinction. Here are some extra sources that discuss the lack of distinction of ayin and yesh. –  cartomancer Aug 11 '13 at 15:44

The physical universe would not exist if it weren't for its Creator. I think that everything physical is also bound in time; time also comes from a starting point, a 'will' (you could say) that started the chain of cause and effect.

The thing is that He didn't just create things. He also creates, constantly, the stage of time itself and He upholds the existence, and all the physical properties, of created things (both tangible and intangible to us). Judaism believes that He has given us an element of genuine choice, responsibility, and agency that is an inexplicable miracle just like creation itself. Still, not a moment goes by that isn't held by Him in existence. Not a thing exists that exists of its own right.

If He creates everything, even while not being Himself a 'thing' in that universe, then how can there even be a question about how He affects it?

When the Bible speaks of our Creator, of course it uses descriptions that are meaningful to us in creation, but in no way does it assume that Hashem is the same as anything created. He made it. He made the mouth to be able to speak. So when it says that He said 'let there be light', that doesn't mean that He used a mouth or even sounds that are carried in substance and time... all of which He made :) I think it is just pointing to the concept of His intention, His choice, which is the best we can do of understanding His creating of the world.

Doesn't this make Him seem distant? Far from it. He isn't limited to anything small; Judaism believes that He cares for us, knows us, communicates with us, and blesses us in many details of life. Every breath, every bit of food or water, every friendship we have, everything we learn, is in His hands. And how about the things that happen and seem horrible? That's another question, about the kindness of His wisdom. It doesn't mean He isn't near to those who seek Him. Think about it... everything we are is derived from His creating, we are nothing without this, but in existing and in being blessed... we are more intimately near to our Source than we are to anything nearby us in the world. That is a big thing about thankfulness.

PS Or were you really asking, "How can the intangible create the tangible"?

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I believe that an answer that you, yourself gave (citing zaq) to a different question pretty much sums up the answer to this question.

The same explanation that Rambam uses to explain how God's attributes can exist without compromising his unchangingness can be applied to explain how God is felt in the world even though he does not act. God's actions are felt as reactions to what we do on earth. If we sin, the natural consequence is punishment. This does not require God to have arms or legs. It's just how the universe works.

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so azav Hashem es Haaretz? –  Shmuel Brin Aug 7 '13 at 5:16
@ShmuelBrin ...how does that follow? –  Double AA Aug 7 '13 at 8:19
@ShmuelBrin Not at all. The opposite, in fact. It's just that the plain understanding of God acting in the world is theologically problematic since God is unchanging. See the linked answer. –  Daniel Aug 7 '13 at 13:13
i dont agree with that analogy here. it sounds like God has only passive will. not active will. –  ray Aug 7 '13 at 17:42
@ray You'll have to take that up with Rambam. Not me. –  Daniel Aug 7 '13 at 17:44

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