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As I understand it, the halacha interprets "lo tina'af" as prohibiting sex between a man (married or unmarried) with a married woman not his wife. Is a gentile woman, in a marriage between gentiles, considered "married" for the purposes of "lo tina'af"?

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Daniel ben Nachman, welcome to Mi Yodeya, and thanks for bringing your question here! I hope you stick around and enjoy the site, including our 284 other questions about gentiles. –  msh210 Jul 10 '13 at 20:30
    
The civil or religious marriage Goyim do means nothing. Once spouses move in with eachother then they are officially married (Rav Yosef Mizrahi). Just as an interesting side note. –  Hacham Gabriel Jul 10 '13 at 22:03

2 Answers 2

Rambam » Sefer Shoftim » Melachim uMilchamot » Halacha 7

A gentile is not executed for adultery with his colleague's wife unless they engage in relations in the normal manner after she had engaged in relations with her husband at least once. However, if she was merely consecrated or had undergone a wedding ceremony, but had never engaged in relations with her husband, one is not liable for engaging in relations with her, as Genesis 20:3 states: 'For she has been possessed by her husband.'

So once she had relations with her husband she is considered to be married and a adulteress relationship is forbidden.

Source

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In Sanhedrin 58b Rav Dimi brings a case of a master who designates a maidservent (gentile) to a male servant (gentile) and another gentile comes along and has biah with her he is killed.

Rav Nachmun writes when is the maidservant considered set aside to him when she is called ploni's girl. See the gemara starting from daf 57 on the topic of bnei noach.

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Unless I am misremembering it, this gemara is speaking specifically of עבדים כנענים. I would have thought that the OP was asking more generally, and about non-jews today. –  Shimon bM Jul 11 '13 at 10:41

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