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In Ra'aya Mehemna (Parshat mishpatim) , it's explained that "the righteous man who suffers" is one whose evil nature is subservient to his good nature.

I honestly did not understand what that line is saying... it means if you are righteous but you suffer, it means there are evil within you? This rightean is not 100% righteous? What is the explanation?

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I would look at Perush Yedid Nefesh or Matok Midvash. That's the simplest way out of any Zoharic issue. –  Hacham Gabriel Jul 10 '13 at 0:52

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The term used for a Tzaddik who suffers is "Tzaddik V'Ra Lo", literally (perhaps) "A Righteous one and bad is his".

The Talmud uses the term to describe one who is righteous, but has bad things happen to him, i.e. "the righteous man who suffers".

The Zohar reads it as the righteous one who has bad, i.e. one who still has some vestiges of his evil inclination within him, although the evil inclination has no control over him.

They are talking about two different things.

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Though the Tzemach Tzedek says that through being a Tzadik VeTov Lo in Avoda one gets "Tov Lo" Begashmius. –  Shmuel Brin Jul 10 '13 at 3:24
    
@ShmuelBrin: connecting the two ideas –  Menachem Jul 10 '13 at 4:07
    
Thanks for the explanation! –  Charlie Jul 10 '13 at 14:06

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