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Do any of the poskim who rule that recorded music is assur during Sefirah/3 weeks distinguish between listening to recorded music in a public setting and listening to recorded music by oneself in private?

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Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/29591/5 – Seth J Jul 9 '13 at 13:21
    
What would be the reason that there should be a difference? – Gershon Gold Jul 9 '13 at 18:47
    
Because when its played in public its related to "rikkudim u'mecholos" but when in private it may not necessarily be considered an act of simcha. – Vtr Jul 9 '13 at 20:16
    
I've heard this before. I think someone definitely made a posek along those lines. – rosenjcb Apr 30 '14 at 21:41

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