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My question is somewhat simple: is there an honorific for particularly righteous, deceased non-Jews? Related: is זכרונו לברכה ever used for non-Jews? I don't recall ever having seen this.

EDIT: I mean honorifics appended to the end of the name.

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This calls forth how you define "Jewish." Avraham wasn't "Jewish" but there is a medieval text called Maaseh Avraham Avinu Alav Hashalom. I also found one called "AL MISHMAR BERITO SHEL AVRAHAM AVINU ALAV HASHALOM " which is, I think, more recent. –  Danno Jun 25 '13 at 20:28
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@danno I suspect he means post-Mosaic non-Jews. –  Double AA Jun 25 '13 at 20:42
    
@Danno, I concur with Double AA that this question seems to be about non-Jews today and in more recent history than the Torah. –  Seth J Jun 25 '13 at 20:54
    
rotten, I've heard or seen, "of blessed memory," if I'm not mistaken. –  Seth J Jun 25 '13 at 20:56
    
@SethJ I assume you are correct, but if precedent exists to refer to someone that way, do we assume that that practice stopped being appropriate at some point? –  Danno Jun 25 '13 at 21:08
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1 Answer 1

By looking at the source we can understand the answer. OB"M or ZT"L comes from the pasuk (Mishlei 10:7) "The mention of a righteous man is for a blessing" Assuming that only a Jew can achieve the level of "Tzadik" that Mishlei is refering to, it seems that the honorific would only apply to Jews. [Non Jews can achieve the level of Pious Among the Nations at most see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Righteous_gentiles#cite_note-SSMH27-4 ]

NOTE: If you are writing/speaking in a forum where the honorific is used for non-jews then I believe that it should be used for derech eretz purposes.

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"Assuming that only a Jew can achieve the level of 'tzadik'" seems like a pretty big assumption. On what do you base it? –  Monica Cellio Jun 26 '13 at 14:36
    
did you read the link I added ? Non-Jews can be come "chasiedi umot haolam" but not Tzadik and even then its not clear if that is possible in this day and age according to all opinions. –  eramm Jun 26 '13 at 15:16
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@eramm Your link doesn't mention Tzaddik. As counter-examples, we know Noach was a Tzaddik (Gen 6:9), and Avraham called the righteous of Sodom "Tzaddikim" (Gen 18:23). Plus we know that Iyov and Nebuchadnezzar are called Eved Hashem, which is seemingly even higher than Tzaddik (though it might not be a linear hierarchy.) –  Double AA Jun 26 '13 at 15:39
    
that is the point even though the link deals with a non-jew who is performing all the mitzvot that he possibly can they are still only called "chasiedi umot haolam". –  eramm Jun 26 '13 at 16:29
    
@danno I suspect he means post-Mosaic non-Jews. – Double AA♦ 19 hours ago so that explains Noach and Sodom –  eramm Jun 26 '13 at 16:34
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