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We know that if a man has relations with a non-Jewess, the halacha is

  1. A zealot may kill him in the act (Sanhedrin 82a).
  2. Both R' Schneersohn (the last one -- in Sichos) and R' Tzadok haCohen miLublin (in Takanas Shavim) seem to imply there is a penalty of kares on the act.

If a Jewish woman has (consensual) relations with a gentile man, do either of these punishments apply? The difference seems to be that the child born of this latter connection is Jewish, while in the former case it is not.

(It would appear from R' Schneersohn's piece that it does make a difference, but I could not understand if it means the first, the second, or both punishments do not apply.)

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It can only be done if the zealot is in the room and is witnessing the action being done. Not before and not after. If the zealot asks a beith din to kill them they are not allowed to give him an ok because that is murder without trial. –  MoriDoweedhYaa3qob Jun 23 '13 at 17:19
    
@MoriDoweedhYaAgob yes, but this was not what i was asking for... –  gt6989b Jun 24 '13 at 16:44

2 Answers 2

up vote 3 down vote accepted

Most opinions hold that the Kares applies only to a Jewish man who has relations with a non-Jewish woman (see Shulchan Aruch Even HaEzer 16), however, there is one minority opinion that it even applies to a Jewish woman who has relations with a non-Jewish man and that is the opinion of Rabbeinu Avrohom HaGadol (quoted by the Shiltei HaGiborim to the Hagahos Mordechai to Yevamos Ch. 4, no. 6, I think. I am doing this by memory).

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From memory that's pretty good! Verify and it'd be better! –  Yehoshua Jun 24 '13 at 5:20
    
Who is R Avrohom HaGadol? –  Double AA Jul 1 at 15:06

There's a Ramban in the Milchames that says it's not the same outrage because the offspring of such a union will still be Jewish.

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