Let me unpack the question a bit and try to help clear this up. See more here.
The Bible tells a story of a city called Sodom. Some visitors show up at the house of Lot, Abraham's nephew, and at one point in the story demand the visitors so they can be raped.
For whatever reasons, the English language picked the word "sodomy" to mean some sort of prohibited sexual behavior. (For instance, a 17-year-old teenage girl who did something with her almost-16-year-old boyfriend.) Not my problem.
The Jewish view, supported by the later prophets' description of Sodom as well as the Talmud's discussion about it, is that Sodom was all about callousness and corruption first and foremost. Raping visitors wasn't "woo-hoo we're attracted to men", it was about "this is how we show that outsiders are unwelcome here and will get no kindness from us, we will show them who's in control here." A civilization built on that had to go.
Now it is true that Judaism does ban homosexual relations quite clearly. Leviticus ch. 18 has a whole list of "don't sleep with A, don't sleep with B", and one of them is clearly "men, don't sleep with men." That prohibition per se is limited to a very specific act. However, that chapter opens with the line "don't get close to uncovering the nakedness of someone prohibited." The Talmud's interpretation of this line is quite simply: if the Torah spells out "don't sleep with A", "don't get close" means don't affectionately hug, kiss, or the like. So that pretty much rules out all "forms of sex." Less bad than the specifically mentioned forms (and for theory's sake, 2500 years ago if all technicalities were met, once in a blue moon the death penalty could be administered for "don't sleep with", whereas the maximum punishment for "don't get close" would be lashes), but still prohibited.