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If someone had their first kid with a person who had children from a previous marriage, is that child a firstborn?

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Firstborn for what purpose? It will likely matter. – Double AA Jun 22 '13 at 21:37
If this is a real situation please make sure to speak with a qualified rabbi about the details of your particular situation when receiving a final ruling. – Double AA Jun 22 '13 at 21:38
Similar: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/28356/5 – Seth J Jun 23 '13 at 13:55
Not real situation Just hypothetical, but I'm sure it can apply to some. An example of use would be Pidyon Haben – Ess Kay Apr 5 at 20:32
up vote 3 down vote accepted

Here is a summary of an answer via wikipedia

The firstborn of one's mother is referred to in the Bible (Exodus 13:2) as one who "opens the womb" of his mother. Therefore, the firstborn of the father exclusively, although considered as a firstborn regarding his father's inheritance, is not considered as a firstborn regarding the requirement to be redeemed, as the mother's womb has already been opened by his half-sibling, the firstborn of his mother. Thus, the Shulchan Aruch rules that only a first born of the mother is required to be redeemed.

Kitzur Shulchan Aruch. Translated by Rabbi Avrohom Davis. Metsudah Publishers, 1996. P. 717

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