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I seek to understand Bamidbar sedra mattos Chapter 31 verse 17. Specifically, the word הֲרֹגוּ is stumping me. It is not the kal impererative masculine plural. The word Hirgoo, הִרְגוּ, appears as the second word in the sentence and is the kal impererative masculine plural. (הֲרֹגוּ is the last word in the sentence.)

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Hi Avril, and welcome to Mi Yodeya. Generally, questions about Hebrew grammar are considered off-topic unless they have a particular use and connection with Judaism itself. The fact that the word is found in the Torah does not, by itself, make it on topic. Is there a learning-based reason or a ritualistic reason compelling you to seek the answer? – Seth J May 30 '13 at 16:12
Similar: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/29394 – msh210 Jun 17 '13 at 0:15

It's the pausal kal masculine plural imperative. (Gesenius (§29.4(b), ¶29m) has more info.)

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