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I've seen the word Hashem hyphenated ("Hash-m"). Is there any valid reason for this practice?

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Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/83/… –  Shmuel May 29 '13 at 20:41
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What do you mean validity? Are you asking if the practice is permitted? Do you want to know if it accomplishes something? What? If it avoids something? What? –  Double AA May 29 '13 at 20:54

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up vote 5 down vote accepted

The names of Hashem which may not be erased are listed in Shulchan Oruch Yoreh Daioh 276 (9).

Hashem is not one of them and so the hyphenated ("Hash-m") seems unnecessary.

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The name "Hashem" was not around when the Shulchan Aruch was written so this is not a proof. –  Double AA May 29 '13 at 22:09
    
@DoubleAA maybe it is. Maybe the SA's list is all-inclusive, so "God", "Hashem", and the like can be erased. That's what the wording of the SA sounds like to me. –  msh210 May 30 '13 at 2:48
    
@msh210 maybe. but you have to show that he meant it to be conclusive. You can't just argue from silence, as this post does. –  Double AA May 30 '13 at 3:19
    
@DoubleAA but Hakadosh Baruch Hu was. –  Shmuel Brin Jun 27 '13 at 2:48
    
@Shmuel No it wasn't. הקדוש ברוך הוא might have been. –  Double AA Jun 27 '13 at 3:59

Hashem is what we use in place of one of the Aibishter's holy names. It simply means The Name. Perhaps people generalize from the examples of G-d and L-rd, and replace the e with a hyphen.

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Welcome to Mi Yodeya, Jay Marme, and thanks for your suggestion. I hope you look around at our other questions, read about the site, and stick around. –  msh210 Jun 27 '13 at 7:10

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