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The very last pasuk in Eicha says "כִּי אִם-מָאֹס מְאַסְתָּנוּ, קָצַפְתָּ עָלֵינוּ עַד-מְאֹד.". The translation from the Atrscroll reads something like "For even if you had rejected us, you have been exceedingly wrathful against us". (The translation might be slightly different, as this is from memory). I was reading through this a few days ago, and it struck me - I thought that G-d could never 'reject' the Jewish nation. So how could it be that even in theory G-d could have possibly rejected us? If the author wanted to convey the idea that G-d seems to have left us to our own devices, surely he could have used a different language?

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I don't understand the question. Why can't the author use whatever hypothetical he wants? – Double AA Jul 1 '13 at 9:03
If it was a 'regular' author, I could understand that; but the author is supposed to be someone who is infused with the spirit of God. If this person even entertained the idea that God could 'reject' us, wouldn't that also allow for the author to follow it to its logical conclusion that God HAS rejected us? – Barry Hammer Jul 2 '13 at 0:03
How is that a logical conclusion? Just because I can discuss what would happen in a Zombie Apocalypse doesn't make them possible. – Double AA Jul 2 '13 at 7:18
Further, even in the hypothetical, ma'os m'astanu seems to imply that HaShem had disdained the Jews at one point in time, and it does not suggest indefinite or permanent rejection (or even rejection of any sort, depending on how you take the connotation of the verb "reject"). – Fred Sep 11 '13 at 16:25

the previous verse reads: "Restore us to You, O Lord, that we may be restored! Renew our days as of old." Perhaps the prophet means to plea for the latter verse due to the harsh treatment received during the churban (destruction). Like a son who was beaten harshly by his father and the father feels bad, so the son seizes the opportunity to make a demand

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