Sign up ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

We see from this answer that wine poured by a Jew who rejects Judaism is yayin nesech. Would that cause the wine to be forbidden even to himself, or is it only forbidden to others? Would he be violating halacha every time he drinks non-mevushal wine?

share|improve this question
dupe? – Double AA Apr 24 '13 at 16:23
@DoubleAA I don't think its a duplicate (though it's certainly related). But you may wish to copypaste large swaths of your answer there over to here. – msh210 Apr 24 '13 at 16:37
@msh210 My answer there actually relates to a mumar lechallel shabbos not a mumar la'avoda zarah. – Double AA Apr 24 '13 at 18:41
JD Bleich had a piece about this in Tradition a few issues back. Need more later. – Shalom May 25 '14 at 23:32
I presume you will have the same question about his cooking being subject to bishul akum and whether he may cook for himself on yom tov since one may not cook for a mumar. Is there any reason to believe he should be treated vis-à-vis himself any differently than others treatment of him? I guess a nafka Mina is if he touched the wine and then did teshuva – Yoni May 26 '14 at 0:37

1 Answer 1

The Avnei Yashfei Chelek 2:61:4 asks a question and offers an answer that may answer this question.

He was asked if one can serve a cup of wine to someone who is a mechalel shabbas.Since once the mechalel shabbas touches the wine he renders it assur and in effect will be drinking yayin nesech.

Rav Feinhandler (the author) answers that it is possible to say that when we prohibit the wine of a mechalel shabbas we are placing a kenas (penalty) to stop his bad behaviors and we "consider" his wine to be like if a non-Jew touched it. He notes that he himself is able to drink the wine since a non-Jew is not prohibited from drinking the wine himself rather we aren't allowed to drink it. Therefore a mechalel shabbas isn't more stringent than a non-Jew and he wouldn't be prohibited from drinking the wine himself. He ends of by saying that it isn't too clear because maybe he gets the status of a non-Jew lechumrah only and would not be allowed to drink it. He also told over this svarah to Rav Eliyashiv who agreed to his psak but not to his reasoning which I just outlined (see the tshuva inside to see why Rav Eliyashiv agreed to allow him to drink it.)

It seems from your question that if he was an actual idol worshiper than its a non-starter and the wine should be prohibited based off an actual issur of receiving benefit from avodah zarah. If you meant a mechalel shabbas then maybe he would be permitted based off this svarah.

share|improve this answer
I'm not sure about your penultimate sentence. Even if he was an actual idol worshiper, his wine might not be forbidden to him unless he literally uses that wine for idolatrous purposes. – Ypnypn Oct 27 at 15:38
The יש לומר at the end of Rav Feinhandler's teshuva is a משמע to me. I don't understand why the fact that a non-Jew is not prohibited from drinking the wine himself means that a mechalel shabbos should also not be prohibited. The mechalel shabbos is Jewish, so it wouldn't be surprising to me to say that he has additional restrictions. – Daniel Oct 27 at 16:03

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.