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We see from this answer that wine poured by a Jew who rejects Judaism is yayin nesech. Would that cause the wine to be forbidden even to himself, or is it only forbidden to others? Would he be violating halacha every time he drinks non-mevushal wine?

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dupe? judaism.stackexchange.com/q/16577/759 –  Double AA Apr 24 '13 at 16:23
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@DoubleAA I don't think its a duplicate (though it's certainly related). But you may wish to copypaste large swaths of your answer there over to here. –  msh210 Apr 24 '13 at 16:37
    
@msh210 My answer there actually relates to a mumar lechallel shabbos not a mumar la'avoda zarah. –  Double AA Apr 24 '13 at 18:41
    
JD Bleich had a piece about this in Tradition a few issues back. Need more later. –  Shalom May 25 at 23:32
    
I presume you will have the same question about his cooking being subject to bishul akum and whether he may cook for himself on yom tov since one may not cook for a mumar. Is there any reason to believe he should be treated vis-à-vis himself any differently than others treatment of him? I guess a nafka Mina is if he touched the wine and then did teshuva –  Yoni May 26 at 0:37

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