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I am under the impression that one is required to wash one's hands with a utensil (typically, the same type of cup used to wash before bread) after using the bathroom.

  • Firstly, what is the source of this custom?
  • Secondly, why must a utensil be used when washing one's hands after using the bathroom?
  • Lastly, is it permissible to wash one's hands without a utensil (after using the bathroom)?
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Why wouldn't it need a utensil? –  Double AA Apr 23 '13 at 21:30
That reference in the Shulchan Aruch doesn't mention a bathroom at all. It's talking about washing one's hands upon awaking. –  Double AA Apr 23 '13 at 21:32
I'm confused about your last comment, @DoubleAA. Shulchan Aruch 4:18 explicitly says "אלו דברים צריכים נטילה במים: [...] היוצא מבית הכסא". –  Lee Apr 23 '13 at 22:06
But that's not where it talks about the utensil. –  Double AA Apr 23 '13 at 22:22
Are you implying that Shulchan Aruch 4:18 means that one should wash one's hands after visiting the bathroom and that one need not use a utensil when doing so? –  Lee Apr 23 '13 at 22:27

2 Answers 2

In Siddur Horav he writes one does not need to pour 3 times and one does not need a utensil.

אם עשה צרכיו...צריך ליטול ידיו שנית במים לתפלה פעם אחת...אך א"צ כלי

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See Rivevos Ephraim 5:593 who brings the Ben Ish Chai (Od Yosef Chai), who makes a distinction between "ruach raah" of a bathroom and that of sleep. Because the "ruach raah" of the bathroom is not as strong, there is a leniency and one does not need a utensil. See Minchas Aron Daf 13:1. It seems that one can be lenient and use the faucet after bathroom use, and there is a true source.

See inside for exact wording. See Igros Moshe EH 1:114.

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If you look at the Shaarei Tshuvah 4:12,he says very similar. –  sam Apr 24 '13 at 12:12

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