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In a Young Israel shul I've attended, the rabbi would not allow the gabbaim to give Jewish men an aliyah if there is reason to believe that the person is openly gay (and acts on his inclination), because the shul does not want to appear to approve of his open violation of the Torah.

Is there a halachic basis for this policy?

If so, does the same basis apply to Jews who openly eat non-kosher food or violate Shabbos, or are some halachic violations treated differently from others?

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There is no prohibition on being gay. Only on acting on that sexual preference. Which case are you talking about? –  Daniel Apr 22 '13 at 15:04
In addition to @Daniel's comment, on the contrary, I know synagogues who will not give an 'Aliyah to someone known not to keep Shabbath. –  Seth J Apr 22 '13 at 15:40
This is a policy question not a halachik one. Are you asking our opinions? –  Double AA Apr 22 '13 at 15:41
As the answer has shown, this question is asking for opinions, and will lead to debate. I have closed it until you clarify it in some way that it seeks facts and references. (I should have just done this before so there wouldn't be any answers to become outdated. My apologies @shalom.) –  Double AA Apr 22 '13 at 16:23
I agree with @DoubleAA. This question sounds rhetorical to me. It seems to be poking at a perceived inconsistency in a particular (real or hypothetical) congregation's policies rather than requesting information about Judaism. –  Isaac Moses Apr 22 '13 at 16:25
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1 Answer

As the comments have indicated, this is a judgment call.

Rabbi Moshe Feinstein allows a synagogue to give an aliyah to someone who does not personally practice all the mitzvahs (though he writes it is not preferable). (He feels that the card-carrying Reform rabbis of several decades ago, however, did not believe in the sanctity of the Torah being read and thus can't receive an aliyah.) He has another responsum about the prohibition of flattering sinners, where he concludes that giving synagogue honors to a sinner is not an automatic declaration of "the fact that you do Action X is totally fine by us."

Nonetheless I think it's within a synagogue's rights to make a statement that certain actions so beyond the pale that they preclude honors. (I suspect many synagogues would, for instance, give an aliyah to someone who doesn't observe shabbos, but not to someone intermarried. It's not a halachic thing per se, it's a public-policy thing.)

In your particular example, I suspect there are several reasons why a synagogue may choose to make a statement: the sin is universal for Noahides; its acceptance in both general and traditional-but-not-Orthodox society is relatively new; and it's perceived that sometimes the sinner (or a movement with whom he is perceived as affiliating) may have more of an attitude of "your religion is wrong so go jump in a lake", compared to "eh I don't live up to all the laws."

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"It's perceived...": you see this more in gay people than in Sabbath desecrators? I would definitely have said the opposite –  Double AA Apr 22 '13 at 16:16
See edits to the question. Your answer seems to still apply, but you may wish to tweak it a bit. –  msh210 Apr 22 '13 at 18:53
@DoubleAA: I'm also surprised by that. People choose to disobey the Sabbath, they don't choose to be gay. –  Avi Apr 24 '13 at 7:07
@Avi afraid you just missed the point. Halacha is focused on actions, not interests. A person makes a choice to sleep with someone the same way they make a choice to drive a car. –  Shalom Apr 24 '13 at 11:18
@Shalom: a gay person chooses to sleep with people of his or her gender like a left-handed person chooses to write with his left hand. –  Avi Apr 24 '13 at 17:43
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