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Rabbis such as Abudraham have explained a woman's exemption from positive time-bound commandments (mitzvot shehazman grama) in terms of a woman's ongoing and preliminary role in supporting her children/husband in the home (see here).

I'm wondering about single-parent fathers, in which for whatever reason, the father is alone in raising his children. Certainly, the constant mitzvah of infant-care, coupled with the burden of providing an income, must be overwhelming. I suspect this is becoming more prevalent in modern times, and I am familiar with a single-parent father who works from home in order to take care of his little children.

In such a scenario, would there be any leniency to exempt the father from certain time-bound mitzvot that might be near impossible to fulfill (i.e., praying shacharit while needing to supervise an infant)? Until such a father finds a new wife or some kind of other support system, could he be exempt like a woman in certain mitzvot?

Also, has this ever come up in rabbinic literature?

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Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/10540/472 –  Monica Cellio Apr 21 '13 at 18:08
    
Ein Dorshim Taamah Dekra –  Shmuel Brin Apr 21 '13 at 19:36
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if you read the abudraham quoted in the answer you linked to, you'll see that it is not about the woman's role, but rather her obligation to her husband, which could cause issues when the husband and G-d both expect her to do something. This would not apply to the man. –  Menachem Apr 21 '13 at 22:12
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If this assumption is true, then why aren't unmarried women obligated in the positive, time-bound mitzvot? –  Daniel Apr 22 '13 at 14:51

3 Answers 3

Basically, we don't have the power to declare someone categorically exempt. Abudraham suggested one explanation, but our system of laws categorically says "all men are obligated", "all women are not."

If a person is truly in a situation beyond their control, halacha recognize that. If it's five minutes before sunset and a single dad who hasn't yet prayed mincha has to take his child to the emergency room, then well he must miss mincha; he should say amida that night twice to make up for it.

A broader question, and more complicated one, is that there are all sorts of things that are "proper religious practice" that are not all-out obligations. For instance, praying at a synagogue on a regular weekday morning is "strongly preferred" over praying at home, but not required. A competent rabbi might very well feel that the single dad who is truly knee-high in caring for young children should focus only on absolute halachic requirements and nothing else is expected of him. On the other hand, we should consider overall spiritual wellbeing -- a person can probably stay alive on water and nutrient concentrates for several weeks, but that's unlikely to be good for them; similarly, there's nothing absolutely requiring a Jewish man to appear in synagogue1 (other than maybe a few special occasions a year), but I think generally we should try to arrange things that he can do so at least twice a month, for the sake of his emotional, social, and spiritual health. As we're in the realm of balancing halachic preferences, there won't be a one-size-fits-all-answer here.

[1] The general language is "one should strive very much" to pray with a minyan; to push the point a bit further Shulchan Aruch YD239:6 says an oath to eat pork is immediately null and void, but an oath to passively omit a rabbinic commandment or avoid spiritually-healthy behavior is still binding - as expanded by Pischei Teshuva #2 citing Aishel Avraham and Rashba, this applies if someone swore to never attend synagogue.

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That "praying at a synagogue on a regular weekday morning is... not required" of a man and that "there's nothing absolutely requiring a Jewish man to appear in synagogue (other than maybe a few special occasions a year)" surprised me and, I think, will surprise many. A source would be valuable. (But +1 for the first paragraph.) –  msh210 Apr 22 '13 at 16:25
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@msh210 -- yes it's surprising. Shulchan Aruch YD239 says if someone swears to eat pork, that's immediately null and void; if someone swears to never attend synagogue that's binding. (Though they should get it annulled asap.) –  Shalom Apr 22 '13 at 16:31
    
@Shalom But couldn't that be because he can always get his own minyan in another building? –  Double AA Apr 22 '13 at 17:06
    
What about the principle of עוסק במצוה applying to full blown obligations? –  Double AA Apr 22 '13 at 17:29
    
@DoubleAA, see the commentaries there. Praying with a minyan is a "yishtadel me'od" in shulchan aruch ("one should strive very much"); there's definitely an obligation for the community to have a weekly Torah reading, but some say it's not on the individual to hear it. And yes there could occasionally be osek b'mitzva, but not categorically. –  Shalom Apr 22 '13 at 17:45

I would assume that once the Torah commands men to do time bound mitzvot, then all men are obligated to to these mitzvot. Obviusly if it's impossible to do it then they are considered an "Oines".

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But then, this begs the question to what degree childcare form "Oines." Do I need to pay for shabbat-morning childcare if that allows me to go to tfila? If I have friends/family who offer help, but I feel it's logistically difficult and/or wearing on them, am I still under "Oines"? –  Ziv Apr 22 '13 at 5:58

The reason for the woman's exemption is basically for the husband not the children. I consider this obvious because the Torah is made for the majority and the majority of men have time to do the mitzvot or can make time whereas women can't. One can add perhaps like one sees today, woman trying to even overdo the men with davenning when she is not obligated. How much more so if she was and would never find time to do anything else. There are other reasons why she shouldnt be davenning and perhaps doing other mitsvot. Since she is at times a niddah. This can hardly apply to a man. As has been mentioned if the man finds certain mitvot difficult or perhaps impossible would be a better word, then of course he is free from doing them.

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Your answer would be more valuable if you backed it up with sources. Especially since your answer implies that it should be obvious, it would be useful for the asker, who apparently did not think it was so obvious, if you made it obvious. –  Seth J Apr 21 '13 at 20:23
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Since she is a Niddah she shouldn't be doing Mitzvot??? Um....why not? –  Double AA Apr 23 '13 at 17:19
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@meir I think this post would be better (and less controversial) if it didn't focus on reasons that women aren't obligated to daven and instead answered the question about whether single-parent men must daven, ideally citing sources that back up that answer. –  Charles Koppelman Apr 23 '13 at 21:28
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@meir Neither does urinating. –  Double AA Apr 23 '13 at 21:49
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@meir Your link proves my point that the majority opinion is that they are obligated at least in Shacharit and Mincha. Besides, was the wife of the MB a bigger posek than her husband? See also vbm-torah.org/vtc/0062507.html which is better IMO –  Double AA Apr 23 '13 at 21:50

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