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Why is it that Rosh Hashanah we make a Bracha Haetz on the Apple in Honey but no Hadamah is made on the vegetables IF THEY ARE both not directly part of the Seudah?

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I can only speak of sephardi custom, but there the custom is to make HaEitz on the pomegranate, adamah on something like the beans, and hakol on either the meat items(heart, lung, head). This order can typically be found in any Sephardi Mahzor. The two I am most familiar with are Ish Matzliah and Shulhan Melekhim.

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Oh so Sefardim accentually make Brachos on all Items when you say sefardim does that mean all including syrians Egyptians and Morocans? – SimchasTorah Sep 3 '10 at 12:46
To my knowledge yes. – Rabbi Michael Tzadok Sep 3 '10 at 13:36

See the desserts question. Common Ashkenazic practice is that fresh fruit warrants its own bracha. But not vegetables.

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Why is that the Halacha? – SimchasTorah Sep 3 '10 at 12:44
My understanding is that's understood as normal practice; fresh fruit is dessert, but salad and other vegetables are part of the meal. Then again, my Rosh Yeshiva has a different mesora -- he makes a ha'adama on the carrot on top of his gefilte fish! – Shalom Sep 3 '10 at 12:58
Quick explanation: fruit is more dessert-like than vegetables. You might have carrots, pickles or celery with your meal, but when was the last time you saw someone serve chopped apples? – yydl Sep 3 '10 at 12:58
@Shalom beat me by 30 seconds – yydl Sep 3 '10 at 12:59
My impression, based on this, is that the definition of "fruit" vs "vegetable" here is a culinary one, not halachic. So strawberries for dessert get ha'adama; avocado in your salad doesn't get ha'etz. – Shalom Sep 3 '10 at 13:25

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