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Update: Added an additional case where the same question could be asked.

It says in Shulchan Aruch 208:12 that when one makes an after-bracha after eating food for which the fore-bracha was "mezonos" or after drinking wine (for example) and it is Shabbos, Rosh Chodesh, or Yom Tov, then these days are mentioned in the after-bracha. The Mishna Brura writes there in note 58 that if one didn't mention these days in the after-bracha then they are yotzee b'dieved. The Shaar HaTziun there, in note 60, points out that this is from the Magen Avraham and that the reason is that one wasn't required to eat this particular food on that day. He cites another reason: that there are those that hold anyway that one doesn't have to mention these days in the after-bracha.

My question is as follows: After drinking the last 2 cups of wine at the Pesach Seder, an after-bracha is made. If one didn't mention Pesach in the after-bracha, would they need to say it again? The reason I might think so is that one is in fact required to drink these two cups, thus obviating the first reason of the Shar HaTzion to not require repetition of the bracha. However according to the second reason I suppose one wouldn't have to make the bracha over again. Are there any poskim who discuss this? Would, according to the first reason that the Shar HaTzion brings down, a person have to make the bracha again?

Similarly the question could be asked in regards to the bracha made after eating Mezonos by a Kiddush on Shabbos. Since this is technically considered to be his "seudah" (in that he made Kiddush and now needs to have a seudah in order for the kiddush to be good.) that is he had a chiyuv to eat. If he left out "Shabbos" from the bracha that he makes afterward would he have to say the bracha over again? Seemingly it's dependent on the 2 reasons the Shar HaTzion brings and perhaps would say since many hold you don't need to mention the day at all then over here in this case we would be rely on that opinion to not say the bracha over again. Are there poskim that discussed this case?

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Yehoshua, see my edits. I've reduced the number of transliterations (Siman, Sif, cosos, and some others have perfectly good English equivalents). I've expanded some rashe tevos (SA, MB) for clarity. Even someone who is knowledgeable enough about Judaism to be interested in your question (or even able to answer it) may find a question hard to read with so much transliteration and the like, and not bother trying. Might I recommend you edit your own future questions similarly? I've also edited the wording a little for clarity. –  msh210 Apr 10 '13 at 15:38
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... See also meta.judaism.stackexchange.com/q/52. Great question, by the way; +1. –  msh210 Apr 10 '13 at 15:45
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@msh210 I'll try my best in the future. It's hard to change the style of writing that I am used to. But I will keep in mind to use only English and other guidelines when quoting sources. –  Yehoshua Apr 10 '13 at 16:55
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No sweat. Posts on the site are easily editable by others. –  msh210 Apr 10 '13 at 17:03
    
You could ask this about Kiddush every week for one who only has mezonos but no bread. –  Double AA Apr 10 '13 at 21:26

1 Answer 1

There is an obligation to drink wine, but there is no obligation to drink a Revi'es of wine - one fulfills his obligation with a majority of a Revi'es (see Siman 472:9 Mishnah Berura 30, and Be'ur Halacha s.v. Veyishte) and we don't say Beracha Achrona on less than a Revi'es.

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Thats a machloket rishonim if you need a reviit for BA –  Double AA Apr 10 '13 at 23:49
    
There is no argument, it's Tosfos who has a doubt that maybe it should be said for a Kezayis. –  Meir Zirkind Apr 11 '13 at 1:18
    
isn't a reviit bigger than a kezayis? –  Double AA Apr 11 '13 at 1:48
    
Yes, but no one says Lehalacha to say BA over a Kezayis wine. –  Meir Zirkind Apr 11 '13 at 2:35
    
Ok but your answer then only says to not say another BA in the OP's case misafek. Is that really the best we can do? –  Double AA Apr 11 '13 at 2:36

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