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Is a Jewish farmer allowed to raise animals for non-kosher slaughter? Does it make a difference whether it is a non-kosher animal (e.g. pig), vs. a kosher animal? Does it make a difference whether the farmer expects to sell most animals for kosher slaughter, but sells a few for non-kosher slaughter, vs. when the farmer expects that most or all of the animals will be sold for non-kosher slaughter? Is the situation different for a farmhand than for the one who owns the farm?

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Zack Martin, welcome to Mi Yodeya, and thanks for bringing your well-written question here. I look forward to seeing you around. –  msh210 Apr 5 '13 at 7:35
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Not the same thing, but I know that most of the large-scale kosher meat companies sell their non-kosher kills to non-kosher meat companies. –  Daniel Apr 9 '13 at 23:53
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One may not do business with food objects as food if they are biblically forbidden to eat, except Chelev (certain forbidden fats) which are specially excluded (Leviticus 7:24) from this prohibition. If one happened to acquire such foods he may sell them, but should do so immediately. (my summary of Shulchan Aruch YD 117)

Accordingly, one should not raise non-kosher animals to sell as food. One could raise kosher animals for non-kosher slaughter provided they are sold before slaughter.

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Does a live animal constitute a food object, or only meat? –  Zack Martin Apr 15 '13 at 8:15
    
@ZackMartin The implication is even a live animal being raised for food is included. (I say this because when it mentions the issue of "immediately" it says "and don't wait until it gets fat" implying it's alive.) –  Double AA Apr 17 '13 at 19:02
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