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Before going to redeem the Jews Moshe asks God what his name is. God says to Moshe in the pasuk (shemos 3:14) that he should be referred to as אֶהְיֶ-ה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶ-ה. To which Moshe responds (see Rashi) O Lord of the universe! Why should I mention to them another trouble? They have enough [problems] with this one.” God agrees with Moshe and opts to tell the people that אֶהְיֶ-ה is sending Moshe.

My question is was there a specific trouble to which the second אֶהְיֶ-ה was referring? If so do we know which one it was (I don't believe that name of God is ever used again)?

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why no hyphen in אשר? – Double AA Mar 10 '13 at 4:25
@DoubleAA I wasn't sure if the whole thing was a name of God or just אֶהְיֶ-ה. You can edit if I made a mistake, though I have often heard people pronounce it Akyeh asher Akyeh without treating אשר differently. – not-allowed to change my name Mar 10 '13 at 4:29
The Rashi you mentioned says '“I will be” with them in this predicament “what I will be” with them in their subjugation by other kingdoms.' -- is that not specific enough? – Menachem Mar 10 '13 at 7:06
@Menachem not specific enough for me. does it mean all? We don't find it used elsewhere (to my knowledge) so I was curious if chazal indicated when else God was manifest in that way (or if perhaps it will occur in the future) – not-allowed to change my name Mar 10 '13 at 18:21

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