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What makes one gentile and what makes one Jew according to preferably Tanach , not restricting authoritative rabbanic sources.

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closed as not a real question by Monica Cellio Mar 3 '13 at 18:20

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, visit the help center. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

@Ali You're playing a game of Semitic Semantics. –  Double AA Mar 3 '13 at 17:05
Meaning, that's an issue what word you use. I thought you meant gentile to mean "non-Jew". If you mean it to mean "non-Mormon", then your question is off-topic. –  Double AA Mar 3 '13 at 17:07
You are asking questions about the English language, not Judaism. Again. Cut it out. –  Seth J Mar 3 '13 at 17:54

1 Answer 1

as the word "gentile" doesn't appear in the Tanach, it would be difficult to trace its meaning to the Tanach.

If you read through the various dictionaries for the etymology of the word, you will see that it develops from a Latin root employed by those who later translated the bible from the Hebrew, such as the KJV, as a word used when the text refers to "nations" which are not the "in group" -- because the label for this "in group" developed over time, the exact non-ness developed. As the wiki page demonstrates, when there were only the "Hebrews" the term "gentile" referred to a "non-Hebrew" when it was used as a translation for an exclusive label. As time passed, and the common language was influenced by the choice of the word "gentile" in the translation of the gospels from the Greek, it was used to exclude those who were not of the Children of Israel. The wiki page goes on to discuss how the word developed (after the 17th century) to mean non-Jew (and often Christian and less "pagan"). It also explains how the Mormons, because they view themselves as "Israelites" have coopted the term and use it to mean "non-Mormons." Of course, the Minnesota Twins can call themselves "Israelites" and therefore use the term to refer to the rest of the American League.

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"goyim" does appear in Tanach ! –  Ali Mar 3 '13 at 17:18
goy and goyim do. They are Hebrew words. They mean various things depending on context. I thought you were asking about the word "Gentile." If you want to know what a Hebrew word means, you should ask that. –  Danno Mar 3 '13 at 17:19
@Ali: He didn't say "goyim" (גויים). He said "Gentile." They're not the same word. One is Hebrew, i.e. גויים, and one is an English interpretation (i.e., translation) of the Hebrew, i.e. "Gentile." Actually, "Gentile," as far as the Bible is concerned, is more likely an English interpretation of the Latin gēns, which is an interpretation of the Greek ἔθνος (ethnos). –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Mar 3 '13 at 17:21
so whats gentile called in hebrew? –  Ali Mar 3 '13 at 17:30
@Ali, why do you assume that there's a word in Tanach that means "gentile," per se? Just out of curiosity, is this an attempt to back into a conclusion that Halal meat is Kosher after all? –  Isaac Moses Mar 3 '13 at 17:37

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