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I recall learning, I think in mesechtas kiddushin, that a woman is the (halachic?) equivalent of a man who has had a bris milah performed. In other words, since she does not have the same organ she is viewed as if she is a person who has had a bris performed, not as a person who does not have a need to have one performed. What is the source for this idea?

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Out of curiousity, what's the nafka mina? –  yoel Feb 28 '13 at 22:24
    
LeMai Nafka Minah? –  Seth J Feb 28 '13 at 22:25
    
for a dvar torah i'm working on, no halachic implication (that i'm aware of) –  user2110 Feb 28 '13 at 22:28
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@yoel, SethJ a practical application is mentioned in the g'mara (see my answer): this is the reason a woman can do a mila. –  msh210 Mar 1 '13 at 0:35

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up vote 6 down vote accepted

Bavli, Avoda Zara 27:1:

אשה כמאן דמהילא דמיא
a woman is like someone circumcised

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Ohh, I'm not there yet . Cool beans, thanks! –  Seth J Mar 1 '13 at 0:45
    
Spins on this come up in other contexts, e.g. suppose a non-Jewish man had his genitalia amputated, hence circumcision is an impossibility; can he convert to Judaism? –  Shalom Mar 1 '13 at 2:33
    
@Shalom, this question probably covers that judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/33388/… –  Kasper Souren Jul 20 at 22:59

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