Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

I recall learning, I think in mesechtas kiddushin, that a woman is the (halachic?) equivalent of a man who has had a bris milah performed. In other words, since she does not have the same organ she is viewed as if she is a person who has had a bris performed, not as a person who does not have a need to have one performed. What is the source for this idea?

share|improve this question
Out of curiousity, what's the nafka mina? – yoel Feb 28 '13 at 22:24
LeMai Nafka Minah? – Seth J Feb 28 '13 at 22:25
for a dvar torah i'm working on, no halachic implication (that i'm aware of) – user2110 Feb 28 '13 at 22:28
@yoel, SethJ a practical application is mentioned in the g'mara (see my answer): this is the reason a woman can do a mila. – msh210 Mar 1 '13 at 0:35
up vote 6 down vote accepted

Bavli, Avoda Zara 27:1:

אשה כמאן דמהילא דמיא
a woman is like someone circumcised

share|improve this answer
Spins on this come up in other contexts, e.g. suppose a non-Jewish man had his genitalia amputated, hence circumcision is an impossibility; can he convert to Judaism? – Shalom Mar 1 '13 at 2:33
@Shalom, this question probably covers that judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/33388/… – Kasper Souren Jul 20 '14 at 22:59

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.