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Where does the custom not to say Tachanun on a Yahrtzeit come from?

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Taamei Haminhagim (citing Maaseh Yechiel) comments that "when it comes to saying Tachanun, we omit it based on any possible reason, since 'it is better to recite fewer prayers with more concentration [than the reverse].'"

So presumably a yahrtzeit, whether of one's own parents or of a prominent tzaddik, is such a reason.

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I do not understand how the concept of "Tov Mi'at tahanunim im kavanah meiharbei bli kavanah" can be used to completely eradicate any tahanun for a day. Maybe their reading of the dictum is "Tov Lima'et Tahanunim" ;-) – Yahu Aug 26 '10 at 5:10
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I used to Daven in a Shul where they almost never said Tachanun as they always found some Yarzeit. One day they had no Yarzeit and they said Tachanun. One of the Alte Yiden in the back Klapped on his table and said "Vus Far Ah Yom Tov Iz Heint?"

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Tachanun was never recited at a certain chassidish shteibl; each day was the yahrtzeit of some rebbe. One day, no one could think of a rebbe who had a yahrtzeit. "Whose yahrtzeit is today," the gabbai asked. No one responded. "I demand that someone tell me which rebbe has a yahrtzeit," the gabbai shouted. No response. "Do you mean to tell me that not one rebbe ever died on this day?!" the gabbai thundered. "No tachanun!" – Fred Apr 28 at 5:00
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The persian jews have such a minhag when there is an avel (c'v's' had a close reltive die within the seven days). We don's say Tachnun when he is in the minyan.

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The general custom is to omit Tachanun in an avel's house; if the avel goes to shul instead, it wouldn't surprise me to apply the same concept. But that's very different (I think?) from a yahrtzeit of a tzadik several hundred years ago. – Shalom Aug 25 '10 at 1:26

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