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Suppose it's late afternoon or early morning and the moon is visible -- can I say it then? Or must it be at "night"? (If so, how do we define "night"?)

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up vote 7 down vote accepted

The Rema 426:1 says it must be night when "the moon is shining and (people) benefit from its light". The Mishna Berurah exludes bein hashemashos and equates benefiting from its light with the time that the moonshine is detectable on the land.

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In other words, after Tzeis –  yydl Aug 24 '10 at 16:49
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Yes, but since it's not dependent on tzais, rather on practical benefit, you needn't hem and haw about the shittos of tzais. Rather it depends on the metzius- is the contrast enough to give benefit. –  YDK Aug 24 '10 at 18:45
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YDK, give it 100 years, and if enough people ask about it, this will be tied to a specific "objective" shiur too. –  Isaac Moses Aug 24 '10 at 18:51
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Isaac, at the current rate of increase in decay of the mesora of halachic principles, it will be much sooner than 100 years! –  Yahu Aug 25 '10 at 3:09
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A diyuk in the Rema that you have to have benefit from the light would start monthly pilgrimages to the mountains! –  YDK Aug 25 '10 at 12:58
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