Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

So ... I understand you're not allowed to lend money to another Jew with interest, I won't get into the question of why.

Does this mean you're also not allowed to accept money from another Jew, where the contract dictates you need to pay an interest on this loan? E.g. a standard bank loan in Israel?

I assume that whether that other Jew is an atheist or not has no bearing on the matter, correct?

share|improve this question
    
there are at least 2 separate questions here -- one being about the Israeli banking system and one about the responsibility of the borrower when entering into a loan contract. There are many opinions about the latter question reflected in articles online. Here is one to start with jlaw.com/Articles/ribis6.html . This article says that the borrower may not pay the interest of any sort, so it is on him as well as the lender torah.org/advanced/weekly-halacha/5757/behar.html –  Danno Jan 25 '13 at 14:06
3  
@Dan, I think it's only multiple questions from the POV of someone who already knows more than this question's POV assumes. A complete answer would explain what you and DoubleAA have as well as heter iska. –  Isaac Moses Jan 25 '13 at 14:38
add comment

1 Answer 1

up vote 5 down vote accepted

The Mishna (Bava Metzia 75b) lists the different people who violate Biblical prohibitions when a loan is given with interest:

ואלו עוברין בלא תעשה המלוה והלוה והערב והעדים וחכמים אומרים אף הסופר
These violate a negative commandment: the one who loans, the one who borrows, the guarantor, the witnesses, and the Sages say even the scribe who writes the document.

(The Gemara below explains that the scribe would be in violation of putting a stumbling block before the blind by allowing the others to perform the violation.)

share|improve this answer
    
This answer does not deal with your latter point about the status of non-beleiving/practicing Jews. –  Double AA Jan 25 '13 at 14:06
    
I guess the bible doesn't give any discounts to atheists, as was already explained to me here - judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/23519/… Also, regarding banks, I will add that I heard that banks in Israel have "special arrangements" that make it so religious Jews won't violate any prohibitions while taking a loan (I don't know what those arrangements are though) –  ripper234 Jan 25 '13 at 15:44
1  
@ripper234 Indeed there are certain legal loopholes that are utilized in some cases, see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heter_iska#Exemptions_and_evasions rabbikaganoff.com/archives/1490 jlaw.com/Articles/heter1.html and an example document dinonline.org/files/2010/02/Heter-Iska.pdf. –  Double AA Jan 25 '13 at 15:59
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.