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Since Niddah is a woman's obligation alone, in theory, it should not depend on whether her husband is Jewish. Correct?

If so, then why do many modern mikvaot exclude women with non-Jewish husbands?

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1) Niddah is not the woman's obligation alone, a man is equally prohibited from having relations with a niddah women. 2) Even if it were so that it is a sole obligation on the women, why shouldn't that depend on if her husband is Jewish? – Michoel Jan 16 at 22:36
Dupe?[15]chars... – Seth J Jan 16 at 22:42
Found it. Mikvah - Non Jewish Husband – Seth J Jan 16 at 22:48
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@SethJ That's "may she," while this is "must she"; no? – Isaac Moses Jan 16 at 22:49
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I think this question needs to be tightened up a bit, then. The title asks something quite different from the body. – Seth J Jan 17 at 1:11
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closed as not a real question by Seth J, Double AA♦ Jan 17 at 2:53

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, see the FAQ.