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I have uncles and cousins who married non-Jewish women but had their boys have brit-millah when they were babies. Are they considered Jewish under orthodox Judaism?

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Hi Ari. Welcome to Mi Yodeya and thank you for bringing your question here. I look forward to your participation in the site. – Monica Cellio♦ Dec 2 '12 at 15:15

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No they are not Jewish.

Judaism is inherited from the mother. Having or not having a bris has no effect on if a person is Jewish.

I'm a little surprised the child had a brit - usually the mohel (person doing the circumcision) checks first if the child is actually Jewish to avoid situations like this. Perhaps it was a medical circumcision not a brit?

Also, you ask "under orthodox Judaism", but I believe this is true under most branches. (With the notable exception of Reform - but even they require that the child be a continual part of the Jewish community, which I suppose, is their version of conversion.)

But, I'm glad you asked - these differing definitions are a cause of some huge problems in the Jewish community, especially when someone becomes a Ba'al Teshuvah and then wishes to get married.

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Perhaps also the Mohel did the Brit with the brachot and procedures of a Milah for Geirim. – Double AA♦ Dec 2 '12 at 16:45
@double aa, wouldn't he also need Tevilah, though? – Seth J Dec 2 '12 at 23:19
@SethJ He would to complete the process (as well as kabbalat ol mitzvot and a korban olah eventually). But this way at least the milah isn't "levatalla" whatever that means exactly. – Double AA♦ Dec 3 '12 at 0:50
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@AriSoffer Yes IF they accept upon themselves the 613 mitvzot. This can only be done after bar/bat mitzvah when they are considered adults capable of making decisions. At that time if they choose not to accept the mitzvot, they revert to being a non-Jew. – Double AA♦ Dec 3 '12 at 4:47
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@DoubleAA wouldn't it be highly unusual for orthodox giyur to take place on a kid who's going to be raised by mixed-religion parents? – msh210♦ Dec 3 '12 at 17:18
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