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I was recently posed the following puzzle:

You have a pot of meat. You put in milk. It becomes pareve. How can this be?

Any ideas on how this is possible?

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closed as not a real question by Isaac Moses Jun 16 '11 at 15:31

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2 Answers 2

up vote 7 down vote accepted

From Ohr Sameyach's archive, #156:

Mix 1 fluid ounce of beef gravy with 59 fluid ounces of water. We don't have 1:60 yet, so the pot is "meaty." Then pour in 1 fluid ounce milk. The pot now contains 60:1 against the milk, but also 60:1 against the meat. It's therefore pareve.

Compared to my previous answer:

-- Both answers only work if there are no recognizable pieces of meat.
-- This answer is better in that the milk is "normal" milk.
-- This answer is also better in that the pot is really, really pareve (human milk, while pareve after-the-fact, should not be used to cook with meat, as it looks really weird!)
-- The previous answer is better as the only ingredients are in fact "meat" and "milk"; not "very dilute meaty substance."

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Are you allowed to do this? Or would this count as a problem of אין מבטלין איסור לכתחילה? –  Curiouser May 30 '11 at 14:56
    
Yes you'd be allowed to do so; at no point was there a pot of "issur" that you diluted. You took one thing that was 100% kosher (albeit dairy) and added another that was 100% kosher (albeit meat). –  Shalom Oct 28 '11 at 0:15
    
You have a meat mixture and you are intentionally adding milk to it. When the first drop of milk hits the meat mixture, you are nullifying it l'chatchila, no? –  Curiouser Oct 28 '11 at 2:37
    
Nope. The prohibition is to take something that is right now non-kosher, and add something to it. Pot A is kosher, Pot B is kosher. –  Shalom Oct 28 '11 at 12:40
3  
If you look at Ohr Sameach's answer, you will see they are talking about how does one "have" such a mixture, not "make" such a mixture. They don't say "mix", rather they say "falls in". So your "recipe" is, I think, ossur. If you disagree, find a source to allow it. –  Curiouser Oct 28 '11 at 19:55

If the milk was halachically pareve to begin with (e.g. human milk), and you added 60:1 by volume against the meat, the result would be pareve.

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Would that help if there are recognizable peices of meat? –  Bas613 Jan 11 '10 at 2:53
    
No, it wouldn't. This assumes everything became a mush, or the meat was liquid to begin with, or something. –  Shalom Jan 11 '10 at 3:43

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