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Did Yishai sin? The gemarah (shabbat 55b) states pretty clearly that he did not; however, the midrash (Yalkut HaMakiri, cited here) seems to indicate that he separated from his wife for an extended period of time, which is forbidden. How do we resolve these two statements?

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related judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/7099/… –  user1668 Nov 7 '12 at 18:00
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According to the version cited in Gershon Gold's answer, the reason why he separated was because they hadn't revealed the law of מואבי ולא מואבית, and his ancestress was from Mo'av (meaning he was forbidden from marrying a Jew). I also saw this version quoted in Sefer HaToda'ah in the month of Sivan, but I don't have the book in front of me to check again.

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pretty sure that is still a sin. he can divorce her but just because he has a safek doesn't give him the right to refuse onah. he should've gotten a psak, no? –  user1668 Nov 8 '12 at 14:43
    
@PM What makes you think he didn't get a psak? Maybe his psak was to wait until the dispute over מואבי ולא מואבית was resolved –  b a Nov 9 '12 at 1:04
    
I ain't no rabbi but being over an aveira does not a psak make –  user1668 Nov 9 '12 at 14:57
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