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Suppose someone is eating something that requires a b'racha meen shalosh — for example, noodles — and something that requires a "bore n'fashos" — for example, salad or water. Then he decides he wants no more of the one type of food, but wants to continue eating the other. Is it more, less, or equally acceptable to say the one b'racha acharona immediately and continue eating, as opposed to saying both after finishing all of his food; and why? Sources, please.

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Incidentally, I ask because I've been in the habit of saying the one b'racha and continuing to eat, and was recently told (not by someone halachically authoritative) that it's inappropriate. (I do recognize that I should not rely on what I read on this site for practical halacha. I'll consult my rabbi for a ruling if necessary.) – msh210♦ Oct 22 '12 at 6:08
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The only thing I can think of is a) if you still are 'eating' then you might come to eat some more of the other type; b) that you should worry for the opinion that borei nefashot exempts al hamichya after the fact so you wouldn't want to say the former before the latter. – Double AA♦ Oct 23 '12 at 3:53
Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/26307 – msh210♦ Feb 15 at 3:19

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