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Suppose someone is eating something that requires saying a b'racha meen shalosh — for example, noodles — and something that requires saying "bore n'fashos" — for example, salad or water. Then he decides he wants no more of the one type of food, but wants to continue eating the other. Is it more, less, or equally acceptable to say the one b'racha acharona immediately and continue eating, as opposed to saying both after finishing all of his food; and why? Sources, please.

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The only thing I can think of is a) if you still are 'eating' then you might come to eat some more of the other type; b) that you should worry for the opinion that borei nefashot exempts al hamichya after the fact so you wouldn't want to say the former before the latter. – Double AA Oct 23 '12 at 3:53
Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/26307 – msh210 Feb 15 '13 at 3:19

In case one of the foods is a drink, Har Tz'vi 96 says that, if the drinking will continue so long past the eating that the time for b'racha acharona on the food will have passed, one should say a b'racha acharona on just the food immediately, having in mind that it not cover the drink. But that doesn't affect the case of two foods AFAICT, nor the case that he's not concerned that much time will pass.

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