Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Why is it that there apparently are some poskim (Halachic authorities) that hold Noled (something that didn't exist before the onset of Shabbos or Yom Tov) is Muter on Shabbos but Ossur on Yom Tov? (At the moment I don't have any good sources to back up this claim...)

share|improve this question
add comment

2 Answers

The Gemora (Beitza 2b) explains that since Yom Tov in general is more lax than Shabbos, they were more stringent about mutkzah in order that people should not disregard it. See Shulchan Aruch Harav (OC 495:13) for the various opinions l'halacha.

share|improve this answer
add comment

What @Michoel said.

Note that it's not just nolad that's more machmir. There is a machlokes generally by muktzeh between R' Shimon (lenient) and R' Yehudah (machmir). On Shabbos we follow R' Shimon, and on Yom Tov we follow R' Yehudah.

The gist of the machlokes is whether your intentions affect the muktzah status of an item. For example, if you have a pile of seforim but you have them to sell, not to read, R' Yehudah says that is muktzeh since you didn't have intention to use them on Shabbos/Yom tov, and R' Shimon says it isn't because he doesn't hold of that restriction.

So lemaaseh, on Yom Tov when we go like R' Yehudah, whatever could be classified as not intended to be used when Yom Tov came in, will be muktzeh. Obviously ask your LOR for specific cases.

(I don't have the sources here, I think it's the second or third siman in hilchos yom tov in Tur/Shulchan Aruch - see there)

share|improve this answer
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.