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Will A Non Jew who did not keep the Noachide Laws be Held Accountable on yom hadin?

After all, he can claim he didn't know anything about them.

Maybe there is a difference between a gentile in China where there are almost zero Jews and a gentile in New york.

The question can also be asked for a Jew who was brought up non religiously, although maybe there, there's more grounds for a claim

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I thought Noachide laws were discoverable through intrinsic human logic (there's a source for this somewhere). If that's the case, G-d imbued all of humanity with knowledge of these laws and one cannot claim to not know of them. –  Charles Koppelman Oct 3 '12 at 17:25
Very similar to and possibly a duplicate of judaism.stackexchange.com/q/29878. –  msh210 Jul 11 '13 at 20:24

2 Answers 2

He's accountable because he should have learned the laws and he didn't (Rambam, Melachim 10:1). Rabbi Elchanan Wasserman (Kovetz Maamarim, Maamar Al Emunah; partially translated online here) explains that a person naturally should think about the purpose of life, and you certainly don't think the purpose of life is to drink beer. You will eventually come to the conclusion to look for G-d's instructions given in the Torah, and follow them.

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ok. but most non jews intuitively do believe in a higher power - Gd. but how would they make that jump to believing in Judaism, especially since many will never even be exposed to Jews –  ray Oct 3 '12 at 21:58
@Raymond, i think that all the 7 Noahide laws are things that a person with sense can come to. Perhaps eating a live animal is hard to understand, but even that perhaps one can understand that it is a cruel thing to do. –  Yehuda Oct 27 '12 at 18:45
@yehuda wont help since the Rambam says that a nonjew must fulfill the noahide laws thru belief in the torah, not out of logic. –  ray Jul 9 '13 at 19:36

According to the Mishneh Torah, only a Ben Noach (one who has accepted the 7 Noahide Laws) is to be held accountable for violating his laws, whether he is aware that he violated a specific law, or not (Melachim uMilchamot 10:1).

A non-Jew who has not accepted the Noahide Laws upon himself, especially if unaware of them, would not be culpable for their violation. On the other hand, one who fulfills them out of intellectual conviction is not guaranteed a share in the world to come, either (ibid. 8:11).

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Can you bring a source for "ben noach" referring only to someone who accepted them upon himself? –  b a Oct 3 '12 at 21:59
I don't think you accurately represented the Rambam. He writes that someone who fulfills the laws out of good sense is not guaranteed a portion in the world to come as is someone who abides by those laws specifically for the sake of serving God. That does not mean that the can't obtain a portion in the world to come. –  Fred Oct 3 '12 at 22:16
@b if the Halakhah refers to all non-Jews, Why not say Nokhri, Goy, or some other word to denote Gentiles in general? –  Tamir Evan Oct 3 '12 at 22:35
@TamirEvan all people are children of Noah. –  Charles Koppelman Oct 3 '12 at 22:52
@TamirEvan It would mean that the law applies specifically to idol-worshipers. It's that not all bnei noach are idol worshipers, not that not all idol worshipers aren't bnei noach. I don't know about the censorship, and if you're right that the original is "goy," I would probably have no response. But still, I've never heard that a "ben noach" is only someone who accepted the commandments upon himself (בן נח אע"פ שחטא בן נח הוא?) –  b a Oct 18 '12 at 4:54

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