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If someone ends off the bracha on Rosh HaShanah "makadesh yisrael v'roshei chadashim" (the text for Rosh Chodesh) instead of "v'yom hazichoron" (the correct text for Rosh Hashanah) are they yotzee b'dieved? The Mateh Ephraim in Siman 582 says that if one ends off "makdesh yisrael v'hazmanim" (the text for other holidays) then they are not yotzee. Is this similar? Is this worse? Perhaps a problem since they didn't mention "v'yom hazichron" at all?

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Kidush? Sh'mone esre? Haftara? –  msh210 Sep 19 '12 at 15:59
    
Is this question only for the first day? As the second day Rosh HaShana is definitely not Rosh Chodesh. –  Gershon Gold Sep 19 '12 at 16:42
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@GershonGold, it's rosh chodesh to the same extent it's Rosh Hashana, no? (And we do include the korban musaf of r"ch in its musaf prayer as we do the first day.) –  msh210 Sep 19 '12 at 17:00
    
@msh210, 582 is talking about Nusah HaTefillah for R"H and 'Asereth Yemei Teshuvah. I assume that's what the question is about. –  Seth J Sep 19 '12 at 17:22
    
For the record, +1 from me. ;-) –  Seth J Sep 19 '12 at 17:23
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